Then your force might be F=kqvB regarding the z-guidance
QUESTION: A number of power is set by volts x amps x big date. A level of physical energy would be defined (or perhaps is) by push x range hence equates to energizing time. Whenever power try converted into mechanical, a force would be produced by applying current and you can newest (amps). Is this a contradiction? Energy is functionally push x go out while physical energy is force x range.
ANSWER: step 1 V=step 1 J/C and you will 1 A great=1 C/s, thus step 1 volt ·amp·second=1 Joules=force·point. No difference, zero contradiction. Another way to consider this to be is the fact current moments voltage was strength and you may energy are W=J/s.
Followup Concern: We totally understand that step one amp are 1 coulomb for every 2nd. I am not sure where 1 volt is equal to step one joule per coulomb originates from otherwise as to why that is right.
ANSWER: The newest digital field Age is defined are the newest force F felt by a charge Q separated by the Q. The newest electronic prospective V means E moments distance d over that it serves. V=Ed=Fd/Q=[J/C]
QUESTION: magnetized push with the fees q swinging with speed v =qV x B if i observe which charges off an automobile swinging with same speed and you may advice just like the that q than just it acceleration because observed from the myself was 0 and so the force might be 0.i am not saying able to understand this challenge each time push non zero and also at other time it’s 0
ANSWER: The issue is that electric Travel dating sites and magnetized fields in one physical stature of source won’t be the same as with another swinging frame. (That is special relativity.) To suit your needs you initially begin by a magnetic field and you can zero electric field. Imagine that the brand new magnetized profession is in the y-guidelines, B=jB, E=0, plus the acceleration out-of q is within the x-guidelines, v=iv. Regarding swinging physique the newest areas was B’=j?B and you may E’=k?vB, in which ?=1/ v(1-(v/c) 2 ). Remember that E’=v x B’; therefore the force, as the observed in the newest moving frame are F’=qE’=qv x B’=k?qvB, as you would expect. Notice, but not, you to F’ ?F , it differ because of the the one thing of ?; for the reason that push is said getting perhaps not Lorentz invariant and is also not even a good quantity during the relativity.
QUESTION: Easily use particular magnetized pubs, cut him or her well in order that I’m able to put them together so you can form a world, with similar rod leading outwards, and the other pole leading inwards, would I have a magnetic monopole object?
ANSWER: Think of your bars as dipoles of positive and negative magnetic charges (monopoles) separated by a distance d. The magnitude of the magnetic field B of a monopole is inversely proportional to the square of the distance r from the charge, B=kq/r 2 where k is some constant. In the drawing above the field at point p is B=B-q+B+q=kq[(1/(r-d) 2 -(1/r+d) 2 ]=4kqrd/[(r+d) 2 (r-d) 2 ]. The field does not look like a monopole because it falls off like 1/r 3 , not 1/r 2 .
Now, glance at the field when roentgen>>d: B?4kqd/r 3
QUESTION: Imagine I have a fee +q and there’s a point P , Imagine I lay a conductor between the charges +q and you may P . Since there are free electrons on it , Negative electrons move towards the +q and you can equal self-confident fees during the conductor near P , The latest conductor have fees shipping such as for example good dipole. So if I do want to determine Age career in the P . I will have fun with superposition concept to get Age within P owed so you’re able to +q and you can E on account of dipole. However, Gauss’s legislation claims you to definitely dipole does not contribute anything to Age industry at P. Can you define me personally ‘intuitively’ (Maybe not within the equations) as to why new dipole will likely not contribute anything to industry at P ?